Solved Paper Himachal Pradesh Administrative Services (HPAS/HAS) Exam 2019 [Part-3]

61. Match the items in List-1 with List-2 and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-1

1. Drain of wealth theory
2. Swaraj as my birth right
3. Separate Communal electorate
4. Entry into legislation

List-2

1. C.R. Das
2. M. Ali Jinnah
3. B. G. Tilak
4. Dadabhai Naoroji
5. Subhash Chandra Bose

Codes:

(a)    (b)        (c)        (d)

1. 4         5           3           2
2. 3         4           1           2
3. 4        3          2          1
4. 2         5           3          4

62. Match List-1 with List-2 and identify the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I

1. Formation of village panchayat
2. Uniform civil code
3. Agriculture and animal husbandry
4. Separation of judiciary from the executive

List-II

1. Article 50
2. Article 48
3. Article 40
4. Article 44

Codes:

(I)    (II)    (III)    (IV)

1. (3)  (4)  (2)  (1)
2. (4)  (3)  (2)  (1)
3. (2)  (3)  (1)  (4)
4. (1)  (2)  (3)  (4)

63. What constitutes the definition of money bill under article 110 of the Indian constitution?

1. The imposition, abolition, alternation in the regulation of any tax
2. The regulation of borrowings of money
3. The appropriation of money out of the consolidated fund of India
4. All of the above

64. Under which article of Indian constitution amendment process has been given?

1. 361
2. 364
3. 368
4. 370

65. Which of the following constitutional amendment act restricted the size of the council of ministers to 15 percent of the total members of the Lok Sabha?

1. 89th Constitutional Amendment Act. 2001
2. 90th Constitutional Amendment Act. 2002
3. 91st Constitutional Amendment Act. 2003
4. 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act. 2003

66. What is the security deposit amount which a candidate contests election for the posts of president and vice-president of India has to tender?

1. 25,000 and 20,000 respectively
2. 20,000 and 15,000 respectively
3. 20,000 each
4. 15,000 each

67. Which article of Indian constitution mention about president’s power of pardon?

1. Article 52
2. Article 62
3. Article 72
4. Article 82

68. Financial emergency under article 360 has been imposed in India in the year.

1. 1962
2. 1965
3. 1971
4. None of the above

69. Who was Taluqdar?

1. A small cultivator
2. A large landlord
3. Who managed religious shrines
4. Who collected the Jaziah from people

70. Which congress session supported the Swadeshi and boycott movement for Bengal in 1905?

1. Calcutta
2. Belgaum
3. Karachi
4. Benaras

71. Who chartered the ship Komagatu maru for taking the Indians to Vancouver?

1. Hardit Singh
2. Mohammad Barakatullah
3. Ram Chandra
4. Balwant Singh

Note: Scrapped by HPPSC

72. Consider the following governor-generals and arrange them in chronological order by choosing the correct code:

1. Lord Lytton
2. Lord Curzon
3. John Lawrence
4. Lord Dufferin

Codes:

1. I         III         II       IV
2. I         IV         III      II
3. III     I           IV      II
4. III      IV         II        I

73. The president of the moderate faction of Congress session in Lucknow 1916, who welcomed Tilak and his supporters back into the Congress, was:

1. Ambika Charan Mazumdar
2. Annie Besant
3. Abul Kalam Azad
4. Lajpat Rai

74. As a compromise with the planters, Gandhi agreed that they refund the money they had taken illegally from the peasants. What percentage was being refunded by them?

1. 15%
2. 50%
3. 75%
4. 25%

75. In whose Viceroyalty, Gandhi Launched the individual Satyagraha and the Quit India Movement and the Cripps Mission arrived in India?

1. Lord Irwin
2. Marquess of Linlithgow
3. Lord Wavell
4. Earl of Wellington

76. Who says that if the religion does not sanction social reforms, it should be changed as it is man – made?

1. Gopal Hari Deshmukh
2. Swami Vivekananda
3. B. G. Tilak
4. Dadabhai Naoroji

77. Which theory/concept on the ‘Origin of Monsoon’ states that the ‘monsoons are produced due to differential heating of continents and ocean basins’?

1. Dynamic concept of Flohn
2. Thermal concept of Halley
3. Jet Stream Theory
4. Air Mass Theory

78. Arrange the following soil types of India from high to low in terms of percent share in total area:

1. Block Soil
2. Red Soil
3. Laterite Soil
4. Desert Soil

Select the correct code:

1. a-b-c-d
2. a-c-b-d
3. b-a-d-c
4. b-a-c-d

79. Which of the following is the largest tribal group of India?

1. Bhils
2. Gonds
3. Santhals
4. Tharus

80. Which of the following pair is not correct?

1. Kalbaisakhi-West Bengal
2. Mango Showers-Karnataka
3. Blossom Shower-Kerala
4. Norwester-Haryana

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81. Match the forest types with their percent share in total forest cover of India?

List-1

1. Tropical Evergreen
2. Subtropical
3. Tropical Moist Deciduous
4. Tropical dry deciduous

List-2

1. 37.0%
2. 28.8%
3. 12.1%
4. 9.5%

Select the correct code :

(a)     (b)         (c)       (d)

1. I      III          IV          II
2. III    IV         I          II
3. III      I            II         IV
4. III      IV         II          I

82. Which of the following pair does not match correctly?

1. Mahim Bay- Maharashtra
2. Kori Creek – Gujarat
3. Mal Bank – Gujarat
4. Point Calimere- Kerala

83. Match List 1 and List-2 and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-1

1. Cape Leuwin
2. Ozark Plateau
3. Katanga Plateau
4. Kamchatka Peninsula

List-2

1. Russia
2. United States
3. Australia
4. Democratic Republic of Congo

Select the correct code :

(i)       (b)          (c)        (d)

1. II        III           IV          I
2. III     II            IV          I
3. I          III          IV          II
4. III       II           I             IV

84. Match the following mining regions for which it is famous for:

List-1

1. Carajas
2. Kalgoorlie
3. Salobo
4. Haerwusu

List-2

1. Coal
2. Copper
3. Gold
4. Iron ore

Select the correct code :

(a)   (b)       (c)       (d)

1. III         IV         I          II
2. I           II         III         IV
3. IV        III          I         II
4. IV     III         II        I

85. The world’s highest tides occur at which of the following places?

1. Bay of Biscay
2. Miami Coasts
3. Bay of Fundy
4. Ungawa Bay

86. Match the following ocean currents with which they are named :

List -1

1. Canary current
2. Labrador Current
3. Agulhas Current
4. Peruvian Current

List-2

1. A Sea Coast
2. A Country
3. A Sea
4. An Island

Select the correct code:

(a)   (b)       (c)       (d)

1. I          III          IV       II
2. III       II          IV        I
3. IV       III         II          I
4. IV       III         I           II

87. Which of the following rivers does not cross the equator, tropic of cancer and tropic of Capricorn twice?

1. Mahi
2. Negro
3. Limpopo
4. Zaire

Note: Scrapped by HPPSC. 

88. Which of the following pair does not match correctly?

1. Malacca strait –- Andaman sea
2. Yucatan strait – Caribbean sea
3. Sunda strait – Gulf of Aden
4. Bass strait — Tasman sea

89. Which one is incorrect regarding sustainable development?

1. The development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
2. Economic development refers to the flow of goods and services in the economy for a long period of time only.
3. It is the practice of developing land and construction projects in a manner that reduces their impact on the environment by allowing them to create energy efficient models of self-sufficiency.
4. To conserve natural resources and to develop alternate sources of power while reducing pollution and harm to the environment.

90. Sustainable development goals and targets are to be achieved by:

1. 2020
2. 2025
3. 2030
4. 2050

91. Which one of the following is not a part of the strategy of a direct attack on poverty?

1. Integrated rural development Programme
2. Family Planning Programme
3. National Rural Employment Programme
4. Jawahar Rajgar Yojna

92. Over the years, the government has been following approacher/es to reduce poverty in India:

1. Specific Poverty Alleviation Programmes
2. Growth-oriented development
3. Meeting the minimum needs of the poor

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. I and III only
2. I and II only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III all

93. Poverty gap reflects:

1. Gap in infrastructural facilities between developed nations and developing nations
2. The difference between the poverty line and actual below that line
3. Gap between developed nations and developing nations
4. Gap between the rich people and the poor people

94. NITI aayog action agends for enhancing digital connectivity is based on:

1. Developing software for services that can be provided digitally
2. Enhancing digital infra-structure
3. Empowering citizens digitally

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III only

95. Which of the following is not an indicator of economically underdeveloped countries?

1. Low per capita income
2. High rate of population growth
3. Low proportion of labour force in the primary sector
4. High level of illiteracy

96. What is/are the objectives of the Competition Commission of India (CCI)?

1. To ensure freedom of trade carried on by other participants in markets in India.
2. To protect the interests of consumers.
3. To promote and sustain competition in markets.
4. To prevent practices having an adverse effect on competition

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. I, II and IV only
2. I, II and III only
3. II, III and IV only
4. I, II, III and IV all

97. Which year is known as the year of demographic divide?

1. 1901
2. 1911
3. 1921
4. 1931

98. The total fertility rate is:

1. The birth of women divided by the total female population
2. The number of births divided by the total population
3. The number of children a women will likely bear in her lifetime
4. The birds to women of a given age divided by the total number of women at that age

99. The national food security mission (NFSM) aims to enhance the production of:

1. Pulses
2. Vegetables
3. Rice
4. Wheat
5. Fruits
6. Coarse cereals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. I, II III and IV only
2. I, III, IV and VI only
3. II, IV, V and VI only
4. III, IV, V and VI only

100. Which of the following schemes aims at creating 300 rural clusters across India to strengthen financial, job and lifestyle facilities in rural areas?

1. Standup India
2. Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushal Yojna
3. Shyama Prasad Mukherji Rurban Mission
4. Skill India

Read more: ॥ Part-1 ॥ Part-2 ॥ 

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