Solved Paper HP Staff Nurse Exam 2020 – HPSSC Hamirpur [Part-1]

By | October 8, 2020

Series – A

1. Haversian canals are found in

  1. Bones
  2. Brain
  3. Kidneys
  4. Lungs

2. Heat regulating Centre is located at?

  1. Thalamus
  2. Hypothalamus
  3. Medulla oblongata
  4. Cerebrum

3. Mitral cells are present in

  1. Kidney
  2. Mitral valve
  3. Olfactory tract
  4. Optic nerve

4. Sensitive pigmented layer of eye is-

  1. Cornea
  2. Retina
  3. Sclerotic
  4. Iris

5. The Nissl’s granules of nerve cells are made up of-

  1. DNA
  2. RNA
  3. Ribosome
  4. Protein

6. The type of joint between sacrum and coccyx is a-

  1. Symphysis
  2. Synostosis
  3. Synchondrosis
  4. Syndesmosis

7. The main solute component of urine is-

  1. urea
  2. glucose
  3. agglutin
  4. urobilinogen

8. The site of oogenesis is

  1. Ovary
  2. Ovum
  3. Oocyte
  4. Oviduct

9. Bone is the example of –

  1. Connective tissues
  2. epithelial tissues
  3. nervous tissues
  4. muscle tissues

10. Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from-

  1. Effector organs of CNS
  2. Receptors to CNS
  3. CNS to receptor
  4. CNS to muscles

11. Length of the male urethra is approximately:-

  1. 18-20 cm
  2. 11-12 cm
  3. 30-40 cm
  4. 2-4 cm

12. Which bacteria is normally present in the vagina?

  1. Streptococci
  2. Haemophilus influenza
  3. Lactobacillus acidophilus
  4. Corynebacterium Sp.

13. Blood groups were first discovered by –

  1. Robert Koch
  2. Karl Landsteiner
  3. Paul Ehrlich
  4. Anton von Leeuwenhoek

14. Which of the following arteries primarily feeds the anterior wall of the heart?

  1. Circumflex artery
  2. Internal mammary artery
  3. Left anterior descending artery
  4. Right coronary artery

15. The term respiration refers to –

  1. Ventilation
  2. Gas exchange within the lungs
  3. Oxygen utilization within cells
  4. All of these

16. Which of the statement by the client to the nurse indicates a risk factor for coronary artery disease?

  1. I exercise every other day
  2. My father died of Myasthenia Gravis
  3. My cholesterol is 180
  4. I smoke 1 ½ packs of cigarettes per day

17. Which complication of cardiac catheterization should nurse monitor for in the initial 24 hrs after the procedure?

  1. Angina at risk
  2. Thrombus formation
  3. Dizziness
  4. Falling blood pressure

18. The nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a client posterior right Cerebrovascular accident. Which finding, if observed by the nurse, would warrant immediate attention?

  1. Decrease in level of consciousness
  2. Loss of bladder control
  3. Altered sensation to stimuli
  4. Emotional lability

19. Which drug is used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism?

  1. Levothyroxine sodium
  2. Thyroglobulin
  3. Lugaol’s solution (strong iodine solution)
  4. Calcitonin-Human

20. A nurse enters a client’s room to discover that the client has no pulse and respirations. After calling for help, the first action the nurse should take is-

  1. Start a peripheral IV
  2. Initiate closed chest massage
  3. Establish an airway
  4. Obtain the crash cart

21. Kussmaul’s breathing is associated with –

  1. Pneumonia
  2. Diabetic Ketoacidosis
  3. Cardiac arrest
  4. Pulmonary embolism

22. Pheochromocytoma is associated with?

  1. Adrenal gland
  2. Pituitary gland
  3. Pancreas
  4. Thyroid gland

23. Webster test is done to diagnose-

  1. Eye problem
  2. Hearing loss
  3. Respiratory problem
  4. Cardiac problem

24. Nurse patient ratio in ICU should be (for 24 hrs)

  1. 1:3
  2. 1:1
  3. 2:1
  4. 1:2

25. Complication of myocardial infarction includes

  1. CHF
  2. Arrhythmias
  3. Cardiogenic shock
  4. All of these

26. Fracture within the last inch of the distal radius is known as

  1. Colle’s fracture
  2. Pott’s fracture
  3. Edward’s fracture
  4. None of these

27. Which of the following alimentary canal is the most common location for Chron’s disease?

  1. Descending colon
  2. Jejunum
  3. Sigmoid colon
  4. Terminal ileum

28. Preparation of the client for occult blood examination is

  1. Fluid intake limited only to 1 litre/day
  2. NPO for 12 hrs prior to obtaining of specimen
  3. Increase fluid intake
  4. Meatless diet for 48 hrs prior to obtaining of specimen

29. The nurse preparing to assist the physician to examine the client’s skin with a wood’s light would do which of the following?

  1. Obtain informed consent
  2. Tell the client that the procedure is painless
  3. Shave the skin site
  4. Prepare a local anesthetic

30. If breath sounds are only heard on the right side after intubation-

  1. Extubate, ventilate for 30 seconds then try again
  2. The patient probably only has one lung, the right
  3. You have intubated the stomach
  4. Pull the tube back and listen again

31. Diazepam is prescribed for a client with anxiety. The nurse instructs the client to expect which side effect?

  1. Incoordination
  2. Cough
  3. Tinnitus
  4. Hypertension

32. Spinal anesthesia is given at-

  1. L2-L4
  2. L3-L4
  3. L5-L6
  4. L1-L2

33. What is odynophagia ?

  1. Difficulty in swallowing
  2. Pain during swallowing
  3. Unable to swallowing
  4. Regurgitation

34. Which hereditary disease is most closely linked to aneurysm?

  1. Cystic fibrosis
  2. Lupus erythematosus
  3. Marfan’s syndrome
  4. Myocardial infarction

35. Sympathetic nervous system induces

  1. Secretion of digestive juices
  2. Increase heart rate
  3. Secretion of saliva
  4. All of these

36. ECG changes in myocardial infarction is

  1. ST-Segment elevation
  2. Wide QRS complex
  3. Presence of U-wave
  4. Prolonged PR-interval

37. Classic symptoms of deep vein thrombosis includes all the following except –

  1. Muscle pain
  2. Homan’s sign
  3. Swelling
  4. Redness

38. How a nurse will teach breathing exercise for a patient with chronic bronchitis

  1. Use chest breathing
  2. Use diaphragmatic breathing
  3. Use open mouth breathing
  4. Use deep inhalation breathing

39. A nurse is taking care of a patient with DVT and she must be aware that venous emboli will be lodged in-

  1. Heart
  2. Lungs
  3. Liver
  4. Kidney

40. Conjunctival xerosis occurs due to the deficiency of –

  1. Vitamin-A
  2. Vitamin-C
  3. Vitamin-B
  4. Vitamin-D

41. A patient with gout should follow what type of diet?

  1. High calcium diet
  2. Low purine diet
  3. Potassium modified diet
  4. Renal diet

42. A patient is suffering from a broken jaw. Which foods would be most beneficial for this patient?

  1. Carrots, fried chicken and cereals
  2. Rice, watermelon and smoked fish
  3. Tacos, peanuts and fresh broccoli
  4. Soup, pudding and ice cream

43. Prevention of Food Adulteration Act was amended in-

  1. 1964
  2. 1976
  3. 1986
  4. All of these

44. Good source of vitamin –D includes all except-

  1. Blue Berries
  2. Sunlight
  3. Salmon
  4. Fortified milk and other dairy products

45. The word personality is derived from the Greek word “Persona” which means-

  1. Drama
  2. Mask
  3. Cloth
  4. Face

46. Which defense mechanism an emotional conflict is expressed by a physical illness or physical symptom without any organic cause?

  1. Sublimation
  2. Conversion
  3. Compensation
  4. Suppression

47. Nurse patient relationship is –

  1. Human to human relation
  2. Superior subordinate relation
  3. Subordinate superior relation
  4. Employer-employee relation

48. Which of the following is not the type of the wound?

  1. Contusion
  2. Ulcer
  3. Laceration
  4. Puncture

49. Immediate treatment of ingestion of poisonous subject is

  1. Induce vomiting
  2. Forced diuresis
  3. Gastric lavage
  4. Seek information to identify drug

50. The minimal score possible on the Glasgow coma scale is-

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 5

51. Concentration of KMnO4 solution used for oral hygiene is –

  1. 1:1000
  2. 1:5000
  3. 1:100
  4. 1:10000

52. What is mandatory before a glucose tolerance test?

  1. NBM 8-10 hrs prior to test
  2. Rich carbohydrate diet from 2-3 days before test
  3. Stop the giving medication
  4. No need to change anything

53. Knee-chest position is also known as

  1. Fowlers position
  2. Lithotomy position
  3. Genupectorial position
  4. Left lateral position

54. Method of administering a drug by topical friction over skin is called

  1. Instillation
  2. Inunction
  3. Insertion
  4. Insufflations

55. Infusion of 1000 ml of NS over 12 hrs requires how many drops per minute when the drop factor is 15 drops/mint?

  1. 15 drops/mint
  2. 17 drops/mint
  3. 21 drops/mint
  4. 23 drops/mint

56. In autoclave temperature should be-

  1. 63’C
  2. 121’C
  3. 115’C
  4. 141’C

57. In adults most common site for taking pulse is-

  1. Radial vein
  2. Radial artery
  3. Brachial artery
  4. Ulnar artery

58. Hey’s test is the test for –

  1. Albumin
  2. Bile salts
  3. Acetone
  4. Bile pigments

59. Calculation of pediatrics doses of medication for children under the age of 1 year is done using which formula?

  1. Oddi’s rule
  2. Fried’s rule
  3. Young’s rule
  4. Evan’s formula

60. 1 ounce is equal to

  1. 4 teaspoons
  2. 6 teaspoons
  3. 8 teaspoons
  4. 10 teaspoons

Read the next part:Part-2Part-3

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