Solved Paper HP Subordinate Allied Services Exam 2019 [Part-4]- HPPSC Shimla

151. On which day in 1857 did the sepoys of British Indian army at Meerut revolt against their European officers at Meerut cantonment sparking the Revolt of 1857 ?

1. 29 March
2. 23 March
3. 31 May
4. 10 May

152. Which one of the following was also called the Viceroy of Indian since 1858?

1. Governor General of India
2. Secretary of State for India
3. President, Board of Control, East India Company
4. The Prime Minister of the United Kingdom

153. Under the tenure of which of the following Governor Generals was the Widow Remarriage Act passed?

1. Lord Ellenborough
2. Lord Dalhousie
3. Lord Canning
4. Lord Lytton

154. Who established the Independent Labour Party in 1936?

1. Subhas Chandra Bose
2. B.R. Ambedkar
3. M.N.Roy
4. S.A. Dange

155. In which year was the All India Trade Union Congress established?

1. 1920
2. 1921
3. 1922
4. 1923

156. In which year was the Vernacular Press Act passed?

1. 1878
2. 1879
3. 1880
4. 1881

157. Which of the following is known as the Magna Carta of the Indian Education under British India?

1. Act of 1813
2. Lord Macaulay’s Minutes (1835)
3. Sir Charles Woods Dispatch (1854)
4. Hunter Education Commission Report (1883)

158. When did the mutiny of the Royal India navy ratings take place?

1. 1943
2. 1944
3. 1945
4. 1946

159. Which one of the following was not a member of the Cabinet Mission (1945)?

1. Mortimer Wheeler
2. Pethick Lawrence
3. Stafford Cripps
4. A.V. Alexander

160. Which one of the following Acts introduced diarchy in provinces of British India?

1. Indian Councils Act, 1892
2. Indian Councils Act, 1909
3. Government of India Act, 1919
4. Government of India Act, 1935

161. Which one of the following criteria has the maximum allocation of revenue among the State as per the recommendations of the 14^th Finance Commission?

1. Area
2. Population
3. Income distance
4. Fiscal discipline

162. The Economic Survey 2017-18 mentioned low-level equilibrium trap, this concept was given by :

1. R.R. Nelson
2. Ragnar Nurkse
3. Gunnar Myrdal
4. Oscar Lange

163. As of November 2018, India improved in World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business ranking by :

1. 13 positions
2. 23 positions
3. 28 positions
4. 5 positions

164. Arrange the following indices in the chronological order and answer from the codes given below it:

1. Human Development Index
2. Multi-dimensional Poverty Index
3. Physical Quality of Life Index

1. 2,1,3
2. 1,2,3
3. 3,1,2
4. 2,3,1

165. Which of the following pairs is or are not matched correctly?

1. 13^th Finance Commission- C.Rangarajan
2. 14^th Finance Commission—Dr. Y.V. Reddy
3. 15^th Finance Commission – N.K. Singh

1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. 1 and 2
4. 2 and 3

166. ‘RISE’ is related to :

1. Higher Education
2. Poverty
3. Housing
4. Health

167. Which of the following surveys are conducted by CSO?

1. Wholesale Price Index
2. Consumer Price Index
3. Index Industrial Production
4. National Accounts

1. 1,2,3
2. 2,3,4
3. 1,2,4
4. All of these

168. Identify the measures as listed by the National Population Policy 2000 to be correct:

1. Reduction of Infant Mortality Rate below 30 per thousand live births
2. Reduction of Maternal Mortality Rate to below 100 per 1-lakh live births
3. Raising the age of Marriage of girls not earlier than 22 and preferably raising it to 24 years or more
4. Facilities for safe abortions to be increased

1. 1,2,4
2. 1,2,3
3. All of these
4. None of these

169. Consider the following regarding Foreign Trade Policy 2015-20:

1. Aims to double India’s export to $700 Billions by 2020
2. Introduced two scheme- Merchandise Export from India Scheme and Services Export from India Scheme

1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of these

170. Consider the following regarding recent amendment to MSMED Act 2006:

1. Basis of classification has shifted to annual turnover
2. Medium Enterprises’ annual turnover is more than Rupees five crore, not exceeding Rupees Seventy Five Crore.

1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of these

171. According to astronomers’ estimate, the total number of galaxies in the universe is about:

1. 100 billion
2. 110 billion
3. 120 billion
4. 130 billion

172. Which one of the following planets has the largest number of satellites?

1. Jupiter
2. Neptune
3. Saturn
4. Uranus

173. Asteroids are found between:

1. Mars and Jupiter
2. Jupiter and Saturn
3. Saturn and Uranus
4. Uranus and Neptune

174. Which one of the following is not correct?

1. The meteoroids are termed as ‘shooting stars’
2. Meteoroids become Luminous when they enter the atmosphere.
3. All meteoroids fall on Earth in the form of ash.
4. Meteoroids travel in the space at great speed.

175. Calculate the time of 45 degrees west, if it is 4 p.m. at 45 degrees east:

1. 4 a.m.
2. 6 a.m.
3. 8 a.m.
4. 10 a.m.

176. Who coined the sentence ‘Give me the matter and I will build a world out of it’?

1. Chamberlin
2. James and Jefferys
3. Kant
4. Laplace

177. The concept of Base Level was developed by :

1. Dutton, C.E.
2. Davis, W.M.
3. Powell, J.W.
4. Thornbury, W.D.

178. Which one of the following is not an igneous rock?

1. Andesite
2. Gabbro
3. Dolomite
4. Rhyolite

179. The Sea of Marmara joins the :

1. Black Sea with the sea of Azov
2. Block Sea with the Aegean Sea
3. Mediterranean Sea with the Adriatic Sea
4. North Sea with the Baltic sea

180. Folds in the mountains are the results of:

1. Compressional force
2. Parallel force
3. Shear force
4. Tensional force

181. A place, where an earthquake originates, is called?

1. Epicenter
2. Focus
3. Fault line
4. Crust

182. National Institute of Disaster Management is at:

1. Punjab
2. Manipur
3. New Delhi
4. Hyderabad

183. The term disaster is derived from which of the following languages?

1. Latin
2. Greek
3. Arabic
4. French

184. As the magnitude of natural disaster whereas their frequencies of occurrence:

1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains same
4. None of these

185. The Disaster Management Act was made in :

1. 2004
2. 2005
3. 2007
4. 2008

186. Tsunamis are waves generated by :

1. Underwater landslides
2. Earthquakes
3. Volcanic eruptions
4. All of these

187. Which of the following is natural Hazard?

1. Earthquake
2. Cyclone
3. Landslide
4. All of these

188. How much percentage of Indian land is prone to earthquakes?

1. 52 percent
2. 59 percent
3. 60 percent
4. 62 percent

189. Powerful Tsunami aisproduced by :

1. Volcanic eruptions
2. Cyclone
3. Tornados
4. Earthquake

190. Landslides occur due to :

1. Intensity of rainfall
2. steep slopes
3. Deforestation
4. All of these

191. The famous book that questioned use of DDT and led to the study of pesticides is titled:

1. The Other Side of Midnight
2. If Tomorrow Comes
3. Beauty and The Beast
4. The Silent Spring

192. Wetland Day is celebrated on :

1. January 2
2. February 2
3. April 22
4. May 14

193. The Wildlife Protection Act of India was given in the year:

1. 1975
2. 1973
3. 1972
4. 1970

194. GPS stands for:

1. Geographical Positioning Satellite
2. Global Positioning System
3. Global Positioning Satellite
4. Ground Postal Services

195. Wind blows because of difference in :

1. Temperature
2. Latitude
3. Longitude
4. Height

196. Which of the following generates Maximum energy?

1. Hurricane
2. All the ocean waves
3. A nuclear bomb
4. A hydrogen Bomb

197. NGT stands for :

1. National Green Technology
2. National Green Tribunal
3. National Grid Tribunal
4. National Groundwater Technology

198. Burning of plastics releases which of the following harmful gases in the atmosphere:

1. Dioxins
2. Helium
3. Oxygen
4. Hydrogen

199. Among several natural hazards which one is known as ‘silent killer’

1. Tsunami
2. Noise
3. Landslide
4. Earthquake

Note: This question is debatable as noise is a man-made hazard. 

200. The number of major biospheres identified by Man and Biosphere (MAB) committee in India are:

1. 11
2. 12
3. 13
4. 17

Source: UNESCO’s Official Website

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